Need help figuring out this rule. No one seems to know.

External Since: Feb 27, 2008 Posts: 1

Ok, here is the idea.

1 - 2 NL game.

First person raises to $12.
Now, the smallest amount that the next person could raise to is $22
because the initial raise from $2 to $12 is ten dollars, so $12 plus
ten is $22.

Now, given that same scenario, what if the first guy raises to $12 and
then the next guy goes all-in for $13, what would the min raise for
the next player be? How does that $1 extra on the all-in player effect
the next raise.

Any ideas?

External Since: Apr 30, 2007 Posts: 168

As I understand it, an all-in bet is not considered a "full raise"
unless the increase in amount is equal to or greater than the
preceding bet/raise.

So if there is a $10 raise, and then an all-in only raises it by $1,
then that does not qualify as a raise, and the $1 cannot be re-raised
by the original raiser, unless someone else raises an additional $10
over the original raise. But a third player can make the $10 re-raise
just as if the all-in had not raised at all.

As I understand it, that is.

Good question for Card Player magazine tho.

On Feb 27, 12:52 pm, davidmill... DeleteThis @yahoo.com wrote:
> Ok, here is the idea.
>
> 1 - 2 NL game.
>
> First person raises to $12.
> Now, the smallest amount that the next person could raise to is $22
> because the initial raise from $2 to $12 is ten dollars, so $12 plus
> ten is $22.
>
> Now, given that same scenario, what if the first guy raises to $12 and
> then the next guy goes all-in for $13, what would the min raise for
> the next player be? How does that $1 extra on the all-in player effect
> the next raise.
>
> Any ideas?